Friday, January 11, 2013

Which is bigger e^pi or pi^e? - a mathematical approach

Here are the mathematical definitions of e and π (pi):

e = 1 + \frac{1}{1} + \frac{1}{1\cdot 2} + \frac{1}{1\cdot 2\cdot 3} + \frac{1}{1\cdot 2\cdot 3\cdot 4}+\cdots
π = Pi = 22/7  (22/7 is approximate value of pi more accurate value is 355/113)

Now we will take mathematical approach in solving the equality problem.

Lets Assume pi^e > e^pi

now taking natural log (Log of base e) on both sides.

Log (pi^e) > Log (e^pi)

eLog(pi) > piLog(e)

eLog(pi) > pi          ---> Log e is 1 because its Log of base e. (LOGe(e) = 1)

Log(pi) > pi/e

since we know that Pi > 1 and hence Log(pi) >1,

then above becomes
1 > pi/e
e > pi        - which is false  (pi = 3.14, e = 2.72)

Therefore our assumption (pi^e > e^pi) is not correct

hence pi^e  is less than e^pi.

3 comments:

  1. This is incorrect on two counts.

    1. The statement "since we know that Pi > 1 and hence Log(pi) >1" is wrong. All we can say from this is that pi > 1 means log(pi) > 0. We could say instead that pi > e thus log(pi) > log(e) = 1

    2. However, log(pi) > 1 doesn't help since this inequality *does not* imply 1 > pi/e. Why, since we don't know the value of log(pi) a priori it could be, say, 1.001, which is certainly not greater than pi/e.

    The above "solution" only works if we use a calculator (or other computational means) to determine the result numerically. If I want to do that, I will simply use a calculator directly.

    ReplyDelete
  2. Here is a way to do the problem without using calculus:

    exp(0) = 1 => exp(1) = e > 1 (1)

    pi > 0 => ln(pi) < pi (2)

    From (1) and (2):

    ln(pi) < pi*1 < pi*e

    pi < e^(pi*e) [e^(pi*e) = (e^e)^pi]

    pi^(1/pi) < e^e

    ln(pi^(1/pi)) < ln(e^e) [ln(e^e) = e*ln(e) = e]

    ln(ln(pi^(1/pi))) < ln(e) [ln(e) = 1]

    ln(ln(pi)/pi)) < 1

    ln(ln(pi)) - ln(pi) < 1

    ln(pi) - ln(ln(pi)) > 1 [i.e., multiply each side of the
    line above by -1]

    ln(pi/ln(pi)) > 1

    pi/ln(pi) > e

    pi/e > ln(pi)

    pi > e*ln(pi)

    pi > ln(pi^e)

    e^pi > pi^e

    ReplyDelete
  3. Actually, the above solution I gave is wrong also, as the line ln(pi) – ln(ln(pi)) > 1 should have -1 on the right side, so it should not be posted.

    ReplyDelete